Download CheckPoint 156-215.81 Exam Dumps to Pass Exam Easily in 2024 [Q13-Q29]

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Download CheckPoint 156-215.81 Exam Dumps to Pass Exam Easily in 2024

Get 100% Real Free Checkpoint Certified Security Administrator 156-215.81 Sample Questions


The Check Point Certified Security Administrator (CCSA) R81 certification is a widely recognized accreditation in the field of network security. The CCSA R81 certification is designed to equip professionals with the necessary skills and knowledge to manage and operate Check Point Security Gateway and Management Software Blades systems. Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81 certification validates the ability of individuals to configure and manage security policies, secure communications across the internet, and protect against network threats.

 

NEW QUESTION # 13
Which Check Point software blade provides Application Security and identity control?

  • A. Identity Awareness
  • B. Application Control
  • C. URL Filtering
  • D. Data Loss Prevention

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 14
What are types of Check Point APIs available currently as part of R80.10 code?

  • A. OSE API, OPSEC SDK API, Threat Prevention API and Policy Editor API
  • B. CPMI API, Management API, Threat Prevention API and Identity Awareness Web Services API
  • C. Management API, Threat Prevention API, Identity Awareness Web Services API and OPSEC SDK API
  • D. Security Gateway API, Management API, Threat Prevention API and Identity Awareness Web Services API

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 15
In ____________ NAT, the ____________ is translated.

  • A. Static; source
  • B. Hide; source
  • C. Hide; destination
  • D. Simple; source

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 16
Fill in the blank: To create policy for traffic to or from a particular location, use the _____________.

  • A. HTTPS inspection
  • B. Geo policy shared policy
  • C. Mobile Access software blade
  • D. DLP shared policy

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 17
What is true about the IPS-Blade?

  • A. in R80, in the IPS Layer, the only three possible actions are Basic, Optimized and Strict
  • B. in R80, the GeoPolicy Exceptions and the Threat Prevention Exceptions are the same
  • C. in R80, IPS is managed by the Threat Prevention Policy
  • D. in R80, IPS Exceptions cannot be attached to "all rules"

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
In R80, IPS is managed by the Threat Prevention Policy567. The Threat Prevention Policy defines how to protect the network from malicious traffic using IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, and Threat Emulation software blades5. The IPS layer in the Threat Prevention Policy allows configuring IPS protections and actions for different network segments5. The other options are not true about the IPS-Blade. References: Check Point IPS Datasheet, Check Point IPS Software Blade, Quantum Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)


NEW QUESTION # 18
Fill in the blank: A(n)_____rule is created by an administrator and configured to allow or block traffic based on specified criteria.

  • A. Implicit drop
  • B. Implicit accept
  • C. Explicit
  • D. Inline

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
An explicit rule is created by an administrator and configured to allow or block traffic based on specified criteria. Explicit rules are displayed in the Rule Base and can be modified by the administrator. References: Certified Security Administrator (CCSA) R81.20 Course Overview, page 12.


NEW QUESTION # 19
How are the backups stored in Check Point appliances?

  • A. Saved as*.tar under /var/log/CPbackup/backups
  • B. Saved as*tgz under /var/CPbackup
  • C. Saved as*tar under /var/CPbackup
  • D. Saved as*tgz under /var/log/CPbackup/backups

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The backups are stored in Check Point appliances as *.tgz files under /var/CPbackup. This is the default location for backup files created by the backup command. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Saved as *.tgz under /var/CPbackup


NEW QUESTION # 20
Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.

  • A. There is one default user that cannot be deleted.
  • B. There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.
  • C. There are two default users and neither can be deleted.
  • D. There is one default user that can be deleted.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
There are two default users on Gaia Platform and neither can be deleted. The two default users are admin and monitor. The admin user has full access to the Gaia configuration and management tools, such as CLI and WebUI. The monitor user has read-only access to the Gaia configuration and management tools, and can only view the system status and settings. These two users cannot be deleted, but their passwords can be changed.References: [Gaia Administration Guide], [Gaia Overview]


NEW QUESTION # 21
Which of the completed statements is NOT true? The WebUI can be used to manage Operating System user accounts and

  • A. edit the home directory of the user.
  • B. assign user rights to their home directory in the Security Management Server.
  • C. add users to your Gaia system.
  • D. assign privileges to users.

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 22
What are the software components used by Autonomous Threat Prevention Profiles in R8I.20 and higher?

  • A. IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, SandBlast and Macro Extraction
  • B. Sandbox, ThreatCloud, Zero Phishing, Sanitization, C&C Protection, JPS, File and URL Reputation
  • C. Sandbox, ThreatCloud, Sanitization, C&C Protection, IPS
  • D. IPS, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
This answer is correct because these are the software components that are used by the pre-defined Autonomous Threat Prevention Profiles in R81.20 and higher1. These profiles provide zero-maintenance protection from zero-day threats and continuously and autonomously ensure that your protection is up-to-date with the latest cyber threats and prevention technologies2.
The other answers are not correct because they either include software components that are not part of the Autonomous Threat Prevention Profiles, such as Sandbox, ThreatCloud, Zero Phishing, Sanitization, C&C Protection, JPS, File and URL Reputation, or they omit some of the software components that are part of the Autonomous Threat Prevention Profiles, such as Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, and Macro Extraction.
* Autonomous Threat Prevention Management - Check Point Software
* Check Point Quantum R81.20 (Titan) Release
* Threat Prevention R81.20 Best Practices - Check Point Software
* Check Point R81


NEW QUESTION # 23
What is the RFC number that act as a best practice guide for NAT?

  • A. RFC 1918
  • B. RFC 1939
  • C. RFC 793
  • D. RFC 1950

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
The RFC number that acts as a best practice guide for NAT is RFC 1918. RFC 1918 defines a range of private IP addresses that are not globally routable and can be used for internal networks. NAT is a technique that maps these private IP addresses to public IP addresses that can communicate with the Internet. RFC 1918 provides guidelines and recommendations for using NAT in different scenarios and environments.References: [RFC
1918], [Network Address Translation (NAT)]


NEW QUESTION # 24
What action can be performed from SmartUpdate R77?

  • A. remote_uninstall_verifier
  • B. fw stat -1
  • C. cpinfo
  • D. upgrade_export

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following is TRUE about the Check Point Host object?

  • A. Check Point Host can act as a firewall.
  • B. Check Point Host is capable of having an IP forwarding mechanism.
  • C. When you upgrade to R80 from R77.30 or earlier versions, Check Point Host objects are converted to gateway objects.
  • D. Check Point Host has no routing ability even if it has more than one interface installed.

Answer: D

Explanation:
A Check Point host is a host with only one interface, on which Check Point software has been installed, and which is managed by the Security Management server. It is not a routing mechanism and is not capable of IP forwarding.


NEW QUESTION # 26
Fill in the blank: It is Best Practice to have a _____ rule at the end of each policy layer.

  • A. Implied Drop
  • B. Implicit Drop
  • C. Explicit Drop
  • D. Explicit Cleanup

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
It is Best Practice to have an Explicit CleanUp rule at the end of each policy layer. This rule will log and drop any traffic that does not match any of the preceding rules in the layer1, p. 23. References: Check Point CCSA - R81: Practice Test & Explanation


NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following is considered a "Subscription Blade", requiring renewal every 1-3 years?

  • A. Firewall Blade
  • B. IPS blade
  • C. Identity Awareness Blade
  • D. IPSEC VPN Blade

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The following is considered a "Subscription Blade", requiring renewal every 1-3 years: IPS blade4. The IPS blade is a software blade that provides protection against network attacks and exploits by inspecting traffic and blocking malicious packets. The IPS blade requires a subscription license that includes updates for the IPS signatures and Geo Protection database. Other subscription blades include Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, URL Filtering, Application Control, Threat Emulation, and Threat Extraction. References: Check Point Licensing and Contract Operations User Guide


NEW QUESTION # 28
When changes are made to a Rule base, it is important to _______________ to enforce changes.

  • A. Save changes
  • B. Install policy
  • C. Publish database
  • D. Activate policy

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
When changes are made to a Rule base, it is important to Publish database to enforce changes5. Publishing database saves the changes to the database and makes them available to other administrators. Installing policy applies the changes to the Security Gateways. References: Check Point R81 Security Management Administration Guide, [Check Point R81 SmartConsole R81 Resolved Issues], [Check Point R81 Firewall Administration Guide]


NEW QUESTION # 29
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CheckPoint 156-215.81 exam is updated regularly to ensure that it reflects the latest developments in the field of cybersecurity. The current version of the exam, R81, was released in 2020 and includes new topics such as CloudGuard, MTA, and Sandblast Agent. Candidates must stay up-to-date with the latest trends and technologies in the field to ensure that they have the knowledge and skills required to pass the exam.

 

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